I posted this to Twitter as well:

I RESERVE THE RIGHT TO BE CONFUSED ON THIS: I have no prior knowledge or understanding of the DoD directive - just trying to understand what people are worried about and DM'ing me about.

A lot of people have been coming to me asking about the "new" directive from the DoD regarding authorization to use "lethal force" on civilians. They are citing what they believe is a new directive in screenshot 1 - the authorization to use lethal force.

Being ignorant on the subject, my first reaction was to think that the DoD always has authorization to use "lethal force" in the event of unrest, depending on the nature of the unrest / proximity of threat.

Am I wrong in concluding that this wording has always been in these DoD directives? Just googling some older ones, and the same phraseology is there (screenshots 2 and 3). But I'm not sure if they are the same directive covering the same subject matter. Links in replies.

Does this directive actually do anything new, or is it just coming to people's awareness for the first time?

I know what Barnes thinks - that it is being misunderstood. Just trying to make sure I understand / check my own analysis.

Thoughts?